MikeK
Gold Member
what is the bottom line to all that? Are you saying the upper income brackets have not increased exponentially over the past three decades while the lower income brackets have diminished in proportion?You should be very careful with the data...and how it is ascertained.
It is misleading.
1. If you dont see it, is it still there?? The stock market boom of the 90s caused IRA and 401(k) plans to triple:
http://federalreserve.gov/releases/z1/Current/annuals/a1995-2004.pdf
Yet while the largest part of the gain went to the bottom 99% of income earners, none was reported on income tax returns, and therefore none of it showed up in income distribution studies based on income tax return data. But the greatest part of the capital gains of the rich were outside such accounts and thus were reported on returns. This exaggerated and misidentified changes in income distribution. Remember, before the changes in the tax code, late 80s, investment income of our middle-income earners was all counted on tax returns. Thus, once it was no longer counted, it appeared that the income of the middle was sharply decreased, while that of the rich appeared to receive the major portion of said distributution!
a. Capital gains tax rate cuts in 97 and in 2003 caused a surge in reportable capital gains realizations outside of tax-protected retirement accounts. The sharp cut in the rate on dividends in 2003 caused a similar surge in dividends paid and reported. These changes caused distortions in comparing trends in incomes for top income earners versus others.
2. Lets be clear: the broadest and most accurate measure of living standard is real per capita consumption. That measure soared by 74% from 1980 to 2004. U.S. Department of Commerce. Bureau of Economic Analysis
a. A study of table 7.1 would show that between 1973 and 2004, it doubled. And between 1929 and 2004, real per capita consumption by American workers increased five fold. The fastest growth periods were 1983-1990 and 1992-2004, known as the Reagan boom.
BTW...the increases in wealth of every quartile increased at least as fast as the top.
In simpler terms, are you saying the rich haven't become substantially richer while more Americans have become proportionately poor, or poorer?