One Would Have to be a complete Idiot . . .

[Billo_Really]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

 

[Billo_Really]

Care to point out were it mentions a national home for the arab muslims then ? Or were it says with the arab muslims in charge ? It doesn't does it, all it says is THE JEWS, with a passing comment about the non Jews living in Palestine not having their 1920 rights infringed

That's right. The conditions for the Mandate was that Jews could have their country, provided they did not infringe upon the inalienable rights of the non-Jewish population. But they did. Which makes them in breach of the Mandate itself.

 

[P F Tinmore]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty.​

A common misperception fueled by Israeli propaganda.

The territories of the ME were divided into "successor states" that were to be held in trust under the mandate system until the people (Those who normally lived in their respective successor states.) could stand alone. Neither the LoN nor the mandates claimed any ownership of those successor states.

Wrong they were divided into Mandates, with each Mandate have one of more FUTURE nations in it. In the case of Jordan and Syria the land was given to arab royals from outside of the respective mandates. Unless you can produce the treaties detailing " successor states" and "held in trust" signed by the LoN.

The popular ISLAMONAZI misconception is that the Mandates were solely for the arab muslims, when the Mandate for Palestine spelt out it was for the Jews only. It made no mention of an arab muslim national home as they were catered for in all the other Mandates. Unless you can find any mention of any other than a Jewish national home in the Mandate for Palestine.


Anything other than the facts as detailed in LoN treaties is just ISLAMONAZI PROPAGANDA and BLOOD LIBELS

...when the Mandate for Palestine spelt out it was for the Jews only.​

Could you quote those passages?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_Mandate_for_Palestine_(legal_instrument)



Establishment of a national home for the Jewish people[edit

The preamble of the mandate document declared:

Whereas the Principal Allied Powers have also agreed that the Mandatory should be responsible for putting into effect the declaration originally made on November 2nd, 1917, by the Government of His Britannic Majesty, and adopted by the said Powers, in favour of the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, it being clearly understood that nothing should be done which might prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine, or the rights and political status enjoyed by Jews in any other country.[28]

Whereas recognition has thereby [i.e. by the Treaty of Sèvres] been given to the historical connection of the Jewish people with Palestine, and to the grounds for reconstituting their National Home in that country .

The Avalon Project The Palestine Mandate


ART. 4.
An appropriate Jewish agency shall be recognised as a public body for the purpose of advising and co-operating with the Administration of Palestine in such economic, social and other matters as may affect the establishment of the Jewish national home and the interests of the Jewish population in Palestine, and, subject always to the control of the Administration to assist and take part in the development of the country.

The Zionist organization, so long as its organization and constitution are in the opinion of the Mandatory appropriate, shall be recognised as such agency. It shall take steps in consultation with His Britannic Majesty's Government to secure the co-operation of all Jews who are willing to assist in the establishment of the Jewish national home.

ART. 6.
The Administration of Palestine, while ensuring that the rights and position of other sections of the population are not prejudiced, shall facilitate Jewish immigration under suitable conditions and shall encourage, in co-operation with the Jewish agency referred to in Article 4, close settlement by Jews on the land, including State lands and waste lands not required for public purposes.

This post contradicts your post in question.

Care to point out were it mentions a national home for the arab muslims then ? Or were it says with the arab muslims in charge ? It doesn't does it, all it says is THE JEWS, with a passing comment about the non Jews living in Palestine not having their 1920 rights infringed

Sure.

Drawing up the framework of nationality, Article 30 of the Treaty of Lausanne stated:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in territory which in accordance with the provisions of the present Treaty is detached from Turkey will become ipso facto, in the conditions laid down by the local law, nationals of the State to which such territory is transferred.”​

The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

Genesis of Citizenship in Palestine and Israel

The people who normally lived in the state that was Palestine owned that country.

 

[P F Tinmore]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Indeed, and since it was Palestine that was to be partitioned (but was not) the map shows Palestine's international boundaries.

 

[Phoenall]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Which the UN did not have the authority to do, as INTERNATIONAL law had already given the land of Palestine to the Jews. And if you look you will see that it was a proposed arab state that the arabs refused, this meant that the 1924 treaty came into force and the whole of the land became the RESURECTED NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS

 

[Phoenall]

Care to point out were it mentions a national home for the arab muslims then ? Or were it says with the arab muslims in charge ? It doesn't does it, all it says is THE JEWS, with a passing comment about the non Jews living in Palestine not having their 1920 rights infringed

That's right. The conditions for the Mandate was that Jews could have their country, provided they did not infringe upon the inalienable rights of the non-Jewish population. But they did. Which makes them in breach of the Mandate itself.

WRONG as the arab muslims declared war in 1948 thus negating those rights, so it was the arab muslims that were to blame. For the record what were the rights afforded to the non Jews under the 1924 treaty ?

 

[Phoenall]

Wrong they were divided into Mandates, with each Mandate have one of more FUTURE nations in it. In the case of Jordan and Syria the land was given to arab royals from outside of the respective mandates. Unless you can produce the treaties detailing " successor states" and "held in trust" signed by the LoN.

The popular ISLAMONAZI misconception is that the Mandates were solely for the arab muslims, when the Mandate for Palestine spelt out it was for the Jews only. It made no mention of an arab muslim national home as they were catered for in all the other Mandates. Unless you can find any mention of any other than a Jewish national home in the Mandate for Palestine.


Anything other than the facts as detailed in LoN treaties is just ISLAMONAZI PROPAGANDA and BLOOD LIBELS

...when the Mandate for Palestine spelt out it was for the Jews only.​

Could you quote those passages?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_Mandate_for_Palestine_(legal_instrument)



Establishment of a national home for the Jewish people[edit

The preamble of the mandate document declared:

Whereas the Principal Allied Powers have also agreed that the Mandatory should be responsible for putting into effect the declaration originally made on November 2nd, 1917, by the Government of His Britannic Majesty, and adopted by the said Powers, in favour of the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, it being clearly understood that nothing should be done which might prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine, or the rights and political status enjoyed by Jews in any other country.[28]

Whereas recognition has thereby [i.e. by the Treaty of Sèvres] been given to the historical connection of the Jewish people with Palestine, and to the grounds for reconstituting their National Home in that country .

The Avalon Project The Palestine Mandate


ART. 4.
An appropriate Jewish agency shall be recognised as a public body for the purpose of advising and co-operating with the Administration of Palestine in such economic, social and other matters as may affect the establishment of the Jewish national home and the interests of the Jewish population in Palestine, and, subject always to the control of the Administration to assist and take part in the development of the country.

The Zionist organization, so long as its organization and constitution are in the opinion of the Mandatory appropriate, shall be recognised as such agency. It shall take steps in consultation with His Britannic Majesty's Government to secure the co-operation of all Jews who are willing to assist in the establishment of the Jewish national home.

ART. 6.
The Administration of Palestine, while ensuring that the rights and position of other sections of the population are not prejudiced, shall facilitate Jewish immigration under suitable conditions and shall encourage, in co-operation with the Jewish agency referred to in Article 4, close settlement by Jews on the land, including State lands and waste lands not required for public purposes.

This post contradicts your post in question.

Care to point out were it mentions a national home for the arab muslims then ? Or were it says with the arab muslims in charge ? It doesn't does it, all it says is THE JEWS, with a passing comment about the non Jews living in Palestine not having their 1920 rights infringed

Sure.

Drawing up the framework of nationality, Article 30 of the Treaty of Lausanne stated:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in territory which in accordance with the provisions of the present Treaty is detached from Turkey will become ipso facto, in the conditions laid down by the local law, nationals of the State to which such territory is transferred.”​

The automatic, ipso facto, change from Ottoman to Palestinian nationality was dealt with in Article 1, paragraph 1, of the Citizenship Order, which declared:

“Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory of Palestine upon the 1st day of August, 1925, shall become Palestinian citizens.”​

Genesis of Citizenship in Palestine and Israel

The people who normally lived in the state that was Palestine owned that country.

What state would that be then, what was its capital, who was its leader, what was its monetary unit. Why did they receive BRITISH passports if they were Palestinians ?

All questions that you cant or wont answer that point to there being no state of Palestine before 1988.

 

[Phoenall]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Indeed, and since it was Palestine that was to be partitioned (but was not) the map shows Palestine's international boundaries.

Yes the MANDATE FOR PALESTINES borders, and not the state of palestines borders as you claim. Plus the arab muslims rejected all that so making their claim false.

 

[Challenger]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Which the UN did not have the authority to do, as INTERNATIONAL law had already given the land of Palestine to the Jews. And if you look you will see that it was a proposed arab state that the arabs refused, this meant that the 1924 treaty came into force and the whole of the land became the RESURECTED NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS

What 1924 treaty was that then? There were several made that year, care to elaborate?

 

[Phoenall]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Which the UN did not have the authority to do, as INTERNATIONAL law had already given the land of Palestine to the Jews. And if you look you will see that it was a proposed arab state that the arabs refused, this meant that the 1924 treaty came into force and the whole of the land became the RESURECTED NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS

What 1924 treaty was that then? There were several made that year, care to elaborate?

The one that finalised the Mandate for Palestine and set in stone the Jewish right to the land.

 

[P F Tinmore]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Indeed, and since it was Palestine that was to be partitioned (but was not) the map shows Palestine's international boundaries.

Yes the MANDATE FOR PALESTINES borders, and not the state of palestines borders as you claim. Plus the arab muslims rejected all that so making their claim false.

The mandate was a temporary administration that held Palestine in trust. It had no land or borders of it own.

The Palestinians never rejected Palestine.

 

[Phoenall]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Indeed, and since it was Palestine that was to be partitioned (but was not) the map shows Palestine's international boundaries.

Yes the MANDATE FOR PALESTINES borders, and not the state of palestines borders as you claim. Plus the arab muslims rejected all that so making their claim false.

The mandate was a temporary administration that held Palestine in trust. It had no land or borders of it own.

The Palestinians never rejected Palestine.

Then why aren't they claiming Jordan which was of course Palestine in 1920, and is inside the international borders of the Mandate for Palestine. And the arab muslims did reject Palestine as the NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS when it was the MANDATE FOR PALESTINE. Then again when it was the partition plan, only to accept it in 1988

 

[Billo_Really]

Which the UN did not have the authority to do, as INTERNATIONAL law had already given the land of Palestine to the Jews. And if you look you will see that it was a proposed arab state that the arabs refused, this meant that the 1924 treaty came into force and the whole of the land became the RESURECTED NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS

Of coarse they had the authority.

When the LoN disbanded, they transferred all their authority over to the UN.

 

[P F Tinmore]

The land title was held by the Ottomans until 1919 when it transferred to the LoN as war booty. Did not need to be notarised as it was common knowledge at the time. During the Mandate for Palestine land was notarised by the British under the Mandate and title deeds duly noted. The Mandate also bequeathed the land title of the remaining land to the Jews in a series of treaties of 1920, 1922 and 1924, it did not bequeath any of the land to arab muslims.

So once again who did the Jews steal this land from and were id the land title giving them ownership ?

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Indeed, and since it was Palestine that was to be partitioned (but was not) the map shows Palestine's international boundaries.

Yes the MANDATE FOR PALESTINES borders, and not the state of palestines borders as you claim. Plus the arab muslims rejected all that so making their claim false.

The mandate was a temporary administration that held Palestine in trust. It had no land or borders of it own.

The Palestinians never rejected Palestine.

Then why aren't they claiming Jordan which was of course Palestine in 1920, and is inside the international borders of the Mandate for Palestine. And the arab muslims did reject Palestine as the NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS when it was the MANDATE FOR PALESTINE. Then again when it was the partition plan, only to accept it in 1988

The mandate had no borders.

 

[Phoenall]

Which the UN did not have the authority to do, as INTERNATIONAL law had already given the land of Palestine to the Jews. And if you look you will see that it was a proposed arab state that the arabs refused, this meant that the 1924 treaty came into force and the whole of the land became the RESURECTED NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS

Of coarse they had the authority.

When the LoN disbanded, they transferred all their authority over to the UN.

And the LoN did not have the authority either, not once they had made it CUSTOMARY INTERNATIONAL LAW that Palestine was to be given to the Jews. The UN realised this shortly after the declaration of independence and altered the UN charter to give the Jews more powers in Palestine.

 

[Phoenall]

Did not bequeath any land to the Muslims?

Well, here's the Partition Plan, you fuckin' liar and it clearly shows "bequeathed" land to the Arabs.

Indeed, and since it was Palestine that was to be partitioned (but was not) the map shows Palestine's international boundaries.

Yes the MANDATE FOR PALESTINES borders, and not the state of palestines borders as you claim. Plus the arab muslims rejected all that so making their claim false.

The mandate was a temporary administration that held Palestine in trust. It had no land or borders of it own.

The Palestinians never rejected Palestine.

Then why aren't they claiming Jordan which was of course Palestine in 1920, and is inside the international borders of the Mandate for Palestine. And the arab muslims did reject Palestine as the NATIONAL HOME OF THE JEWS when it was the MANDATE FOR PALESTINE. Then again when it was the partition plan, only to accept it in 1988

The mandate had no borders.

Which Mandate are we talking here, the British mandate or the Mandate for Palestine ?