Obamacare mandate is precedent setting, in a BIG way

one small step for man, one giant step toward "soylent green".
Obamacare, the government responsible for your personal support, maintenance, and upkeep.
In a situation of fiscal crisis, the first question for the government bean counters is "where can we cut our costs?"
germany instituted a system of universal healthcare at the time the german nation was formed out of the coalesced city states in the late 1800's. Hitler began as simply a pragmatic politician, and an outsider at that, the leader of a country suffering under an enormous debt load, the reparations imposed by the versaille treaty, while being immersed under a tidal wave of unemployment subsequent to the world wide economic downturn. "how can i cut germany's costs and have enough money left to put the people to work?"
well boss, there's the invalid, the infirm, the institutionalized, the gravely handicapped wwi veterans.
Starting down that slope is the easy part..........

$GodwinsLaw_CatPoster.jpeg
 
I'm loving this new approach to retail. Y'see, I invented some barbed-wire dental floss that is incredibly effective in preventing decay and gum disease.

So effective that it could save any nation TRILLIONS in dentistry.

Now, Mr. "President" - get off your ass and mandate that every American buy a spool a week.

I mean, now that we know that's perfectly legal......
 

The Tenth Amendment does not give states the right to force Americans to do something that has been ruled unconstitutional.

If it is my constitutional right not to be forced to buy health insurance, then that's my right. The state can't pass laws that violate my constitutional rights. They are protected by the Supremacy Clause.

Look, I'm not arguing here. I'm looking for a clear and concise explanation as to why I might be wrong.
 
Oh, and not to complicate the issue here, but doesn't this make Paul Ryan's Social Security voucher plan,

which effectively forces you to buy private insurance, unconstitutional as well?
 
Does that mean you can't explain it to me?

I could, but you wouldn't understand it.

Which is forumspeak for 'I can't.'

Can ANYONE help manifold here? All I want to know is how can a federal law that is unconstitutional become a state law, performing the same function, that is constitutional?

First you need to understand the 10th amendment.

Then you'll need to read your state constitution to see what powers it grants the state government.
 

The Tenth Amendment does not give states the right to force Americans to do something that has been ruled unconstitutional.

If it is my constitutional right not to be forced to buy health insurance, then that's my right. The state can't pass laws that violate my constitutional rights. They are protected by the Supremacy Clause.

Look, I'm not arguing here. I'm looking for a clear and concise explanation as to why I might be wrong.

Here is my understanding, and someone correct me if I'm wrong.

SCOTUS decides what is unconstitutional for the federal government.

It only weighs in on state law in special circumstances.

The STATE Supreme Court is the final arbitrator of state law and state government constitutionality as is applies to the STATE Constitution.

This is the Federalist system, as opposed to a unitary system where all the power rests with the central government.
 
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Congress can regulate inter-state commerce. An uninsured person from Arkansas getting injured, without insurance, in Hawaii costs Hawaii, not the state in which they reside.

That has to be the most absurd definition of "interstate commerce" ever conceived of. However, it's only sightly worse than all the other idiocies liberals have conceived.

If not buying health insurance constitutes "interstate commerce," then so does not brushing your teeth or not eating enough vegetables. Virtually everything becomes interstate commerce according to the Obama definition. Of course, that's exactly what the liberal Nazis intended.
 
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Congress can regulate inter-state commerce. An uninsured person from Arkansas getting injured, without insurance, in Hawaii costs Hawaii, not the state in which they reside.

That's close to the dumbest thing I've ever heard.


It's hard to believe that it's the argument the Eric Holder justice department is using to defend this monstrosity.
 
Does that mean you can't explain it to me?

I could, but you wouldn't understand it.

Which is forumspeak for 'I can't.'

Can ANYONE help manifold here? All I want to know is how can a federal law that is unconstitutional become a state law, performing the same function, that is constitutional?

It's been explained here countless times, by myself and others.

I know you well enough to know you're not actually looking to be educated.
 
I also guess that NYcurbweiner hasn't bothered to read any of the decisions being handed down that the mandate is unconstitutional. Hint: The reason isn't because it's a civil rights violation.
 

The Tenth Amendment does not give states the right to force Americans to do something that has been ruled unconstitutional.

If it is my constitutional right not to be forced to buy health insurance, then that's my right. The state can't pass laws that violate my constitutional rights. They are protected by the Supremacy Clause.

Look, I'm not arguing here. I'm looking for a clear and concise explanation as to why I might be wrong.

Here is my understanding, and someone correct me if I'm wrong.

SCOTUS decides what is unconstitutional for the federal government.

It only weighs in on state law in special circumstances.

The STATE Supreme Court is the final arbitrator of state law and state government constitutionality as is applies to the STATE Constitution.

This is the Federalist system, as opposed to a unitary system where all the power rests with the central government.

If it's unconstitutional for the federal government to ban all gun ownership, because of the second amendment,

a state can't turn around and ban all gun ownership within the state can it?
 
I could, but you wouldn't understand it.

Which is forumspeak for 'I can't.'

Can ANYONE help manifold here? All I want to know is how can a federal law that is unconstitutional become a state law, performing the same function, that is constitutional?

It's been explained here countless times, by myself and others.

I know you well enough to know you're not actually looking to be educated.

Again, that's forumspeak for 'I can't'.
 

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