Missouri Voting on Gay Marriage Ban

5stringJeff

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Sep 15, 2003
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Missouri Voting on Gay Marriage Ban
Tue Aug 3,10:43 AM ET
By KELLY WIESE, Associated Press Writer

JEFFERSON CITY, Mo. - The presidential race is not the only high-stakes political battle being waged in Missouri this year. The state was voting Tuesday on a constitutional amendment to ban gay marriage, marking the first such vote in the nation since Massachusetts legalized same-sex marriage last year.

National groups on both sides of the debate expect the vote to be a litmus test for which campaign strategies work — and which don't — as the battle spreads to ballot boxes around the United States.

At least nine other states, and perhaps as many as 12, will vote on similar amendments this year. Four states already have similar amendments.

http://story.news.yahoo.com/news?tmpl=story&cid=616&e=6&u=/ap/20040803/ap_on_el_st_lo/gay_marriage
 
Interesting. If We get 38 states to ammend their constitution banning gay marriage we may be able to ammend the federal constitution bypassing the Senate altogether.
 
Avatar4321 said:
Interesting. If We get 38 states to ammend their constitution banning gay marriage we may be able to ammend the federal constitution bypassing the Senate altogether.

could be wrong, but I dont' think thats how it works. :scratch:
 
DKSuddeth said:
could be wrong, but I dont' think thats how it works. :scratch:

A constitutional ammendment can be passed without the Senate if 2/3s of the States agree to it, and if 2/3 of the states pass ammendments to ban gay marriage, then family advocate groups could easily get them to pass a federal ammendment. I am not exactly sure how it would work though because as far as its a ammendment clause in the constitution that has never been used before.
 
Avatar4321 said:
A constitutional ammendment can be passed without the Senate if 2/3s of the States agree to it, and if 2/3 of the states pass ammendments to ban gay marriage, then family advocate groups could easily get them to pass a federal ammendment. I am not exactly sure how it would work though because as far as its a ammendment clause in the constitution that has never been used before.

hmmm. I thought amending the US constitution went in these steps.

1) congress votes and 2/3 rds approves/disapproves
2)senate votes and 2/3 rds approves/disapproves
3) 38 or more states ratify amendment.

I'll read into that more. Its entirely possible I'm wrong.
 
DKSuddeth said:
hmmm. I thought amending the US constitution went in these steps.

1) congress votes and 2/3 rds approves/disapproves
2)senate votes and 2/3 rds approves/disapproves
3) 38 or more states ratify amendment.

I'll read into that more. Its entirely possible I'm wrong.

No Dk you are right, the Senate passes it with 2/3 majority then it is sent to the states where 2/3 or 38 of em need to ratify it before its official.
 
Article V

The Congress, whenever two thirds of both houses shall deem it necessary, shall propose amendments to this Constitution, or, on the application of the legislatures of two thirds of the several states, shall call a convention for proposing amendments, which, in either case, shall be valid to all intents and purposes, as part of this Constitution, when ratified by the legislatures of three fourths of the several states, or by conventions in three fourths thereof, as the one or the other mode of ratification may be proposed by the Congress; provided that no amendment which may be made prior to the year one thousand eight hundred and eight shall in any manner affect the first and fourth clauses in the ninth section of the first article; and that no state, without its consent, shall be deprived of its equal suffrage in the Senate.


The emphasis is mine but seems to point to the either or scenario in the first post. Congress is not the ony ratification process nor the first.
 
I agree with Moi, she better be right cause that's how I teach it for the Constitution test! LOL

I don't believe the second way has ever been applied? That's my memory anyways.
 

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