Matthew 12:40

Discussion in 'Religion and Ethics' started by rstrats, Dec 3, 2012.

  1. rstrats
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    rstrats Member

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    Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase “x” days and “x”nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the “x” days and at least parts of the “x” nights?
     
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  2. rosends
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    rosends VIP Member

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    the idea in Judaism is called "miktzat hayom kekulo" part of a day is [as] the entire. It is an idea invoked in the talmud to explain particular rabbinic opinions about understanding certain timing issues (like a case where a rabbi allowed clothing to be cleaned during his mourning period, or the biblical details of the priestly immersion and purification ritual). It is never openly apparent in the text so anyone using it to explain an issue in the gospels would be, it seems, lending credence to the rabbinic/talmudic exegetical and theological framework.
     
  3. amrchaos
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    amrchaos Pentheus torn apart

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    I would think that Christianity has no choice but to lend credence to--what you just said!:tongue:
     
  4. rstrats
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    rstrats Member

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    I know; that is why I started this topic - to see if there is any documentation to back up the idea. Do you know of any?
     
  5. rstrats
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    rstrats Member

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    rosends,

    re: "the idea in Judaism is called 'miktzat hayom kekulo' part of a day is [as] the entire.

    As regards the Jewish practice of counting any part of a day as a whole day I would agree, but when “nights” is added to “days” to yield the phrase “x" days AND "x" nights it normally refers to a measurement of a consecutive time period where “day” refers to the light portion of a 24 hour period and “night” refers to the dark portion of a 24 hour period. No one In the history of apologetics as far as I know has ever presented any historical documentation that the phrase “ x" days AND "x" nights” was a unique first century idiom of Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek which could mean something different than what the phrase means in English. Again, if you have such documentation, I would very much like to see it.
     
  6. rstrats
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    rstrats Member

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    Perhaps someone new looking in will know of some documentation.
     
  7. rstrats
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    rstrats Member

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    Maybe rewriting the OP will make it a bit more clear: Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?
     
  8. rstrats
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    rstrats Member

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    I probably should have addressed the OP to those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week.
     
  9. tipofthespear
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    tipofthespear Senior Member

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    Matthew 12:40) For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.


    May I ask why it matters? Don't know about "6th day" folks.......seems to me we have Jesus crucified on Friday (daylight - before the beginning of Passover), then Saturday, then Sunday........known in Christianity as Resurrection Sunday generally...........I don't see what it matters though.......
     
  10. rstrats
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    rstrats Member

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    tipofthespear,

    re: "May I ask why it matters?"

    When asked by the scribes and Pharisees for a sign of his authority, the Messiah said that the only sign would be His entombment for three days AND three nights. If He didn't spend that time in the tomb, then He would not qualify as the Messiah. So why do you think that it is not important as to the length of time?

    Do you know of any writing that was asked for in the OP?
     

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