2aguy
Diamond Member
- Jul 19, 2014
- 111,956
- 52,217
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- Thread starter
- #201
You can't explain why Britain has more gun violence after they banned guns, while the United States has less gun violence as more Americans own and carry guns.....
You try to use the murder rate to hide the truth, because the murder rate hasn't changed after they banned and confiscated guns......and it was low before they banned and confiscated guns.
You have to explain....
--how British criminals have more guns now than they did before the ban
--Why British criminals who already have guns do not use them to commit murder.
--And since the British criminals have guns, point them at victims and either do not pull the trigger or shoot the victim in the legs, how British gun control had any effect on that process.....
Then.......
Why did gun murder in the U.S. go down 49% as more Americans owned and carry guns.
Why did gun crime in the U.S. go down 75% as more Americans own and carry guns.
Why did violent crime in the U.S. go down 72% as more Americans own and carry guns....
Once you get done explaining all of that, you might actually have learned something...
