Government has the power to levy taxes, but...

How does that negate anythng I said?
Facts:
-The employer collects income/payroll/sales tax revenue for the government.
-The employer is not compensated for this service
-The employer is under threat of legal action if he does not perform this service.

If you think can show how what I listed above does not fall into the defintion below, please do.

Thirteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
It breaks down in that the employer would be stealing from the employee if they kept the funds.
The fact that he collects the funds in the first place is part of the involuntary servitude.

He is collecting for the employee and the employee's benefit. It isn't government money until it reaches the government.
 
It breaks down in that the employer would be stealing from the employee if they kept the funds.
The fact that he collects the funds in the first place is part of the involuntary servitude.
He is collecting for the employee and the employee's benefit.
It doesnt matter WHY he is forced to provide a service to the government -- he is still forced to do so, and is thus placed under a consdition of involuntary servitude. On my last reading, the 13the amendment did not prohibit involuntary servitude 'unless there's a good reason'.

It isn't government money until it reaches the government
The involuntary servutude comes in long before the money is sent to the government, so it doesn't matter when the government actually takes posession of the revenue.
 
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Your denial is deep. I cannot continue to give your POV credibility by continuing to post on this thread.

unsubscribe.
 

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