As great as it was and still is, the US Constitution has at least one fatal flaw

[Conservative65]

Specifically, the 19th Amendment said a person's sex could not be used to deny or abridge their right to vote. It doesn't say "women".

Yes. And prior to that women were routinely turned away from polling places or even arrested for trying to vote. So, while there was no specific rule in the constitution against women voting, they were denied access to the polls until the 19th amendment.

And no, the word "woman" does not appear in the amendment.

"The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Considering that women were routinely denied access to the polls because of state and local laws (or just assholes in charge), the 19th amendment did not need to say "women" to be an amendment that gave women the vote.

Something can't give women a right to do something if women had done it prior to the amendment.

If state and local laws forbid women from voting, as was the case, then a constitutional amendment certainly can give women the vote.

Only to an uneducated moron like you that doesn't understand anything beyond the rote memorization you learned at whatever public school you attended. They did you a disservice and you're too fucking stupid to know it.

Since an amendment can't single out a specific group, it can't clearly do what you say, retard.

Retard? LMAO!!

The proof of the inaccuracy of your accusations can be seen by answering 2 questions.

1) How many genders did the gov't recognize in 1920? The correct answer would be 2, male and female.
2) Were men routinely denied access to polling places based solely on their gender? No.


So we have an amendment saying a person cannot be denied access to voting based solely on their gender. And since men were not commonly denied voting access due to their gender, it was women who were protected by the 19th amendment.

Since the amendment didn't say women, it protected everyone. That's how amendments are written. Your argument might have validity if women hadn't been able to vote proper to
the 19th Amendment. They were.

\Next thing you'll try to say is the 15th gave blacks the right to vote. If that was the case, why were so many still unable to vote after it was passed if that's what a document higher than any other law in the land grants them?

 

[WinterBorn]

Yes. And prior to that women were routinely turned away from polling places or even arrested for trying to vote. So, while there was no specific rule in the constitution against women voting, they were denied access to the polls until the 19th amendment.

And no, the word "woman" does not appear in the amendment.

"The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Considering that women were routinely denied access to the polls because of state and local laws (or just assholes in charge), the 19th amendment did not need to say "women" to be an amendment that gave women the vote.

Something can't give women a right to do something if women had done it prior to the amendment.

If state and local laws forbid women from voting, as was the case, then a constitutional amendment certainly can give women the vote.

Only to an uneducated moron like you that doesn't understand anything beyond the rote memorization you learned at whatever public school you attended. They did you a disservice and you're too fucking stupid to know it.

Since an amendment can't single out a specific group, it can't clearly do what you say, retard.

Retard? LMAO!!

The proof of the inaccuracy of your accusations can be seen by answering 2 questions.

1) How many genders did the gov't recognize in 1920? The correct answer would be 2, male and female.
2) Were men routinely denied access to polling places based solely on their gender? No.


So we have an amendment saying a person cannot be denied access to voting based solely on their gender. And since men were not commonly denied voting access due to their gender, it was women who were protected by the 19th amendment.

Since the amendment didn't say women, it protected everyone. That's how amendments are written. Your argument might have validity if women hadn't been able to vote proper to
the 19th Amendment. They were.

\Next thing you'll try to say is the 15th gave blacks the right to vote. If that was the case, why were so many still unable to vote after it was passed if that's what a document higher than any other law in the land grants them?

A very few women were allowed to vote. Most were not. Until the 19th amendment.

 

[WinterBorn]

Yes. And prior to that women were routinely turned away from polling places or even arrested for trying to vote. So, while there was no specific rule in the constitution against women voting, they were denied access to the polls until the 19th amendment.

And no, the word "woman" does not appear in the amendment.

"The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex."

Considering that women were routinely denied access to the polls because of state and local laws (or just assholes in charge), the 19th amendment did not need to say "women" to be an amendment that gave women the vote.

Something can't give women a right to do something if women had done it prior to the amendment.

If state and local laws forbid women from voting, as was the case, then a constitutional amendment certainly can give women the vote.

Only to an uneducated moron like you that doesn't understand anything beyond the rote memorization you learned at whatever public school you attended. They did you a disservice and you're too fucking stupid to know it.

Since an amendment can't single out a specific group, it can't clearly do what you say, retard.

Retard? LMAO!!

The proof of the inaccuracy of your accusations can be seen by answering 2 questions.

1) How many genders did the gov't recognize in 1920? The correct answer would be 2, male and female.
2) Were men routinely denied access to polling places based solely on their gender? No.


So we have an amendment saying a person cannot be denied access to voting based solely on their gender. And since men were not commonly denied voting access due to their gender, it was women who were protected by the 19th amendment.

Since the amendment didn't say women, it protected everyone. That's how amendments are written. Your argument might have validity if women hadn't been able to vote proper to
the 19th Amendment. They were.

\Next thing you'll try to say is the 15th gave blacks the right to vote. If that was the case, why were so many still unable to vote after it was passed if that's what a document higher than any other law in the land grants them?

Are you saying that the 19th amendment didn't do anything?

By 1920, 19 states had given women the vote by state law. There were 48 states. So 40% of the states did not allow women to vote.

I'll concede that some women were allowed to vote prior to the 19th being raitified.

So change my post to "The 19th amendment gave MOST women the vote, and protected them from having their right to vote revoked".

 

[Conservative65]

Something can't give women a right to do something if women had done it prior to the amendment.

If state and local laws forbid women from voting, as was the case, then a constitutional amendment certainly can give women the vote.

Only to an uneducated moron like you that doesn't understand anything beyond the rote memorization you learned at whatever public school you attended. They did you a disservice and you're too fucking stupid to know it.

Since an amendment can't single out a specific group, it can't clearly do what you say, retard.

Retard? LMAO!!

The proof of the inaccuracy of your accusations can be seen by answering 2 questions.

1) How many genders did the gov't recognize in 1920? The correct answer would be 2, male and female.
2) Were men routinely denied access to polling places based solely on their gender? No.


So we have an amendment saying a person cannot be denied access to voting based solely on their gender. And since men were not commonly denied voting access due to their gender, it was women who were protected by the 19th amendment.

Since the amendment didn't say women, it protected everyone. That's how amendments are written. Your argument might have validity if women hadn't been able to vote proper to
the 19th Amendment. They were.

\Next thing you'll try to say is the 15th gave blacks the right to vote. If that was the case, why were so many still unable to vote after it was passed if that's what a document higher than any other law in the land grants them?

Are you saying that the 19th amendment didn't do anything?

By 1920, 19 states had given women the vote by state law. There were 48 states. So 40% of the states did not allow women to vote.

I'll concede that some women were allowed to vote prior to the 19th being raitified.

So change my post to "The 19th amendment gave MOST women the vote, and protected them from having their right to vote revoked".

Something can't give a group a right if said group could already do, in many cases, what you say the amendment did for them. What it did was prevent states from using sex of a person to deny the vote. Since states, not the federal government, set the regulations for what it takes to vote within that state, what the 19th amendment did was say states could still makes those rules but one of them couldn't deny someone the right to vote because of their sex. It also applied to men the same.

It appears as if you didn't look at the link. By 1919, women has partial or full suffrage in all but, the best I can tell, 11 states. That means, since there were 48, somewhere in the 36 - 37 range could vote in some elections. I can count 15 that had full suffrage.

 

[WinterBorn]

If state and local laws forbid women from voting, as was the case, then a constitutional amendment certainly can give women the vote.

Only to an uneducated moron like you that doesn't understand anything beyond the rote memorization you learned at whatever public school you attended. They did you a disservice and you're too fucking stupid to know it.

Since an amendment can't single out a specific group, it can't clearly do what you say, retard.

Retard? LMAO!!

The proof of the inaccuracy of your accusations can be seen by answering 2 questions.

1) How many genders did the gov't recognize in 1920? The correct answer would be 2, male and female.
2) Were men routinely denied access to polling places based solely on their gender? No.


So we have an amendment saying a person cannot be denied access to voting based solely on their gender. And since men were not commonly denied voting access due to their gender, it was women who were protected by the 19th amendment.

Since the amendment didn't say women, it protected everyone. That's how amendments are written. Your argument might have validity if women hadn't been able to vote proper to
the 19th Amendment. They were.

\Next thing you'll try to say is the 15th gave blacks the right to vote. If that was the case, why were so many still unable to vote after it was passed if that's what a document higher than any other law in the land grants them?

Are you saying that the 19th amendment didn't do anything?

By 1920, 19 states had given women the vote by state law. There were 48 states. So 40% of the states did not allow women to vote.

I'll concede that some women were allowed to vote prior to the 19th being raitified.

So change my post to "The 19th amendment gave MOST women the vote, and protected them from having their right to vote revoked".

Something can't give a group a right if said group could already do, in many cases, what you say the amendment did for them. What it did was prevent states from using sex of a person to deny the vote. Since states, not the federal government, set the regulations for what it takes to vote within that state, what the 19th amendment did was say states could still makes those rules but one of them couldn't deny someone the right to vote because of their sex. It also applied to men the same.

It appears as if you didn't look at the link. By 1919, women has partial or full suffrage in all but, the best I can tell, 11 states. That means, since there were 48, somewhere in the 36 - 37 range could vote in some elections. I can count 15 that had full suffrage.

So you are conceding that all women could not vote prior to the 19th amendment being ratified?