Moi
Active Member
Well, I don't know California law but here are a few things to keep in mind:Originally posted by Bry
maybe you're right, Jim. this is a very interesting example, however. Hypothetically speaking,
if the legislature signs a law, and that law for what ever reason may be deemed unconstitutional, what is the mechanism for briniging that law into question? Isn't it precisely the breaking of said law in order to have it ajudicated by the courts? Moi probably knows something about this...
A mayor takes an oath to UPHOLD the laws. Any case against this mayor would probably only adjudicate whether his actions were outside his scope of authority. It would not adjudicate the law itself. He did not interpret a law incorrectly, as in he believed the law said green when in fact it said blue. He clearly said that he avoided enforcing the law because he thought it was invalid. That's not his job nor his right. That's the right of the courts.
Also, in order to sue for the invalidity of a law, one must have standing. That means that you have to have been harmed by the law or the potential for harm. This mayor, as a married heterosexual, could not possibly have standing. Now, if SF has an attorney general or a city attorney as I am sure that the state must, they could, I believe, sue the state legislature if the laws are invalid. Has that happened?
The constitution of california and the laws of california must comply with the us constitution. Thus, if the california constitution stated that marriage is defined as between a man and a woman, and the laws of california stated such too, the ultimate test on it's authority would be if the SC says its okay vis a vis the us constitution.
The mayor can advocate all he wants for the repeal of the law or for the courts to side with the gay marriage proponents. But until the court decides a case wherein they declare the law unconstitutional, his agreement with the voters was to uphold the laws as they are legislated.