I propose this question because it seems that when you look at the bans on gay marriage across the country they do not address religious marriage at all. A few facts: 1. No US law prevents a couple from declaring their union before god in a church or other religious institution. The law does not step in and tell churches they can or cannot perform marriage ceremonies for gay couples. Even in states where gay marriage is not recognized gays can in front of a willing authority of a religion get married in the eyes of god. 2. The US marriage contract does not apply religious laws or regulations to marriage. A church cannot oppose a marriage between a couple that would otherwise legally be married. The laws and benefits that are granted to couples by the government are non-religious and contractual in nature. 3. US law allows the ending of the marriage contract as per the decided equitable distribution of assets and separation of the parties involved. The church may not recognize divorce proceedings based on their own rules in regards to marriages, but legally a couple can dissolve their relationship as per the law of the land and not religious guidelines. This is not to say religion does not have a place in marriage as many use it's guidelines as a subset to the legal guidelines. The law even allows for the voluntary agreed upon arbitration of the marriage contract based upon religious rules, but it clearly says that is voluntary and it is specifically expressed in marriage contracts because the standard US marriage contract does not apply those rules. So at the end of the day the laws that supposedly ban gay marriage do not accomplish their goals. They do not actually ban gay marriage in a religious sense. The only thing they accomplish is limiting people from joining in a partnership with another trusted person of the same gender in the same way as a marriage contract. Please show me where I am incorrect in this. If this is the case the laws are clearly prejudiced and they do not accomplish the goals they want to.